Term Definition
culture the beliefs, social practices and characteristics of a social group
pictograph an ancient or prehistoric drawing or symbol
cuneiform wedge-shaped writing in Mesopotamia
ziggurat a rectangular stepped temple build by Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia
Tigris/Euphrates Rivers Mesopotamia was an area located between these two rivers
Judaism a monotheistic religion that was developed by the Hebrews whose founder was Abraham and holy text called the Torah
polytheism worship of many gods
monotheism worship of one god
Mesopotamia Land between rivers (Tigris/Euphrates) and also known as the fertile crescent
Sumer a city-state in Mesopotamia; people who lived there known as Sumerians

DW – List 9

Term Definition
yacht a small ship for pleasure cruises or racing
slalom a downhill skiing race over a zigzag course
spectator a person who watches something without taking part
tournament a series of contests in some sport
amateur someone who does something for pleasure, not for a profession
diversion something that relaxes and entertains
avocation a hobby or pastime
rival a person striving for the same thing as another; competitor
referee one who enforces the rules in certain sports contests
official one who supervises an athletic contest

Buisness Law Chapter 2

Term Definition
Judicial Review The process by which a court decides on the constitutionality of legislative enactments and actions of the executive branch.
Jurisdiction The authority of a court to hear and decide a specific case
Long Arm Statue A state statute that permits a state to exercise jurisdiction over nonresident defendants.
Probate Court A state court of limited jurisdiction that conducts proceedings relating to the settlement of a deceased person's state.
Bankruptcy Court A federal court of limited jurisdiction that handles only bankruptcy proceedings, which are governed by federal bankruptcy law.
Federal Question A question that pertains to the U.S. Constitution, an act of Congress, or a treaty and provides a basis for federal jurisdiction in a case.
Diversity of Citizenship A basis for federal court jurisdiction over a lawsuit between citizens of different states and countries.
Concurrent Jurisdiction Jurisdiction that exists when two different courts have the power to hear a case.
Exclusive Jurisdiction Jurisdiction that exists when a case can be heard only in a particular court or type of court.
Venue The geographic district in which a legal action is tried and from which the jury is selected.
Standing to Sue The legal requirement that an individual must have a sufficient stake in a controversy before he or she can bring a lawsuit.
Justiciable Controversy A controversy that is not hypothetical or academic but real and substantial; a requirement that must be satisfied before a court will hear a case.
Small Claims Court A special court in which parties can litigate small claims without an attorney.
Questions of Fact In a lawsuit, an issue that involves only disputed facts, and not what the law is on a given point.
Question of Law In a lawsuit, an issue involving the application or interpretation of a law.
Writ of Certiorari A writ from a higher court asking a lower court for the record of a case.
Rule of Four A rule under which the United States Supreme Court will not issue a writ of certiorari unless at least four justices approve of the decision to issue the writ.
Litigation The process of resolving a dispute though the court system.
Pleadings Statement by the plaintiff and the defendant that detail the facts, charges, and defenses of a case.
Complaint The pleading made by a plaintiff alleging wrongdoing on the part of the defendant. When filed with a court, the complaint imitates a lawsuit.
Summons A document informing a defendant that a legal action has been commenced against her or him and that the defendant must appear in court on a certain date to answer the plaintiff's complaint.
Service of Process The delivery of the complaint and summons to the defendant.
Default Judgement A judgement entered by a court against a defendant who has failed to appear in court to answer or defend against the plaintiff's complaint.
Answer Procedurally, a defendant's response to the plaintiff's complaint.
Counterclaim A claim made by a defendant in a civil lawsuit against the plaintiff. In effect, the defendant is suing the plaintiff.
Reply Procedurally, a plaintiff's response to a defendant's answer.
Motion to Dismiss A pleading in which a defendant admits the facts as alleged by the plaintiff but asserts that the plaintiff's claim to state a cause of action has no basis in law.
Motion For Judgement on the Pleadings A motion by either party to a lawsuit at the close of the pleadings requesting the court to decide the issue solely on the pleadings without proceeding to trail. The motion will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.
Motion for Summary Judgement A motion requesting the court to enter a judgement without proceeding to trail. The motion can be based on evidence outside the pleadings and will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.
Discovery A method by which the opposing parties obtain information from each other to prepare for trail.
Deposition The testimony of a party to a lawsuit or a witness taken under oath before a trail.
Interrogatories A series of written questions for which written answers are prepared by a party to a lawsuit, usually with the assistance of the party's attorney, and then signed under oath.
E-Evidence A type of evidence that consists of all computer-generated or electronically recorded information.
Metdata Data that are automatically recorded by electronic devices and proved information about who created a file and when, and who accessed, modified, or transmitted it on their hard drives. Can be described as data about data.
Voir Dire An important part of the jury selection process in which the attorneys question prospective jurors about their backgrounds, attitudes, and biases to ascertain whether they can be impartial jurors.
Motion of a Directed Verdict A motion for the judge to take the decision out of the hands of the jury and to direct a verdict for the party making the motion on the ground that the other party has not produced sufficient evidence to support her or his claim.
Award The monetary compensation given to a party at the end of a trail or other proceeding.
Motion for Judgment N.O.V. A motion requesting the court to grant judgment in favor of the party making the motion on the ground that the jury's verdict against him or her was unreasonable and erroneous.
Motion for a New Trail A motion asserting that the trial was so fundamentally flawed (because of error, newly discovered evidence, prejudice, or another reason) that a new trail is necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice.
Brief A written summary or statement prepared by one side in a lawsuit to explain its case to the judge.
Docket The list of cases entered on a court's calendar and thus scheduled to be heard by the court.
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) The resolution of disputes in ways other than those involved in the traditional judicial process, such as negotiation, mediation, and arbitration.
Negotiation A process in which parties attempt to settle their dispute informally, with or without attorneys to represent them.
Mediation A method of settling disputes outside the courts by using the services of a neutral third party, who acts as a communicating agent between the parties and assists them in negotiating a settlement.
Arbitration The settling of a dispute by submitting it to a disinterested third party (other than a court), who renders a decision.
Arbitration Clause A clause in a contract that provides that, in the event of a dispute, the parties will submit the dispute to arbitration rather than litigate the dispute in court.
Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) The resolution of disputes with the assistance of organizations that offer dispute-resolution services via the Internet.

Small animal exam

Question Answer
Precautions that you should use when treating animals with contagious diseases include: Change your clothes afterwards
Wear gloves
Thoroughly wash your hands with soups and water then use a disinfecting Agent
Which of the following are hazards that you may be exposed to in the veterinary practice? Exposure to zoonotic diseases
Animal bites and scratches
Harmful chemicals
Dogs are responsible for more reported bite cases that cats True
What are some ways that you can be exposed to microbes in the veterinary practice? Contact with mucous membranes/eyes
Contact with saliva fluids/fluids in broken skin/wounds
Accidental inoculation via needle stick
The type of material that should be kept capped/sheathed until ready for use. And then is disposed of in a designated container is known as Sharp
The majority of animal bites are from ———— and ———- are the most frequent victims. Dogs, children
The most common bite associated infection is caused by
Which of the following are behaviors or problems that pets may have that can increase the risk of them biting humans or other animals? Dominance aggression
Protectiveness or territoriality
Painful conditions
Infectious diseases is the only mechanism or category of disease False
The term that means "without signs of disease" is Asymptotic
Not all infectious diseases can be transmitted between animals True
What bodily fluids from an infected animal may pathogenic organisms Oscular discharge
Respiratory secretions
Which of the following are vectors Flies
A systemic infection occurs when the microbe enters the body and is confined to a specific area. False
Some bacteria will take up gram stain depending upon the makeup of their cell wall. A gram positive bacterium will appear ——- under the microscope. Purple/ blue
Bacteria are: Microscopic, single celled organisms: only some are pathogenic
The term that describes bacteria that require oxygen to grow/ reproduce is ———– Aerobes
Term that describes an illness or abnormal condition is Morbidity
A pandemic refers to Epidemics that spread to several countries/ new continents ( worldwide ) which affect large number of animals/ people
Epidemiology only studies infectious diseases False
Pasturella spp
A systemic infection occurs when the microbe enters the body and is confined to a specific area False
Precautions that you should use when treating animals with contagious diseases include Change your clothes afterwards
Wear gloves
Thoroughly wash your hands with soup and water then use a disinfectanting agent

DW – List 10

Term Definition
geography the study of the earth's surface, climate, countries, peoples, and products
torrid extremely hot
frigid extremely cold
isthmus a narrow strip of land connecting two larger bodies of land
tributary a stream that flows into a larger body of water
delta the fertile land that collects at the mouth that some rivers
archipelago a group of many islands
plateau a plain in the mountains; tableland
strait a narrow channel connecting two larger bodies of water
straight without bend or curve; not crooked

World History …

Term Definition
Ptolemy Geocentric theory
Copernicus Heliocentric theory
Galileo telescope/visually proved heliocentrism
Andreas Vesalius Anatomy
William Harvey Blood circulation
Rene Descartes "I think, therefore I am"/Scientific reasoning
Francis Bacon Science conquers nature
Blaise Pascal Power of faith
Isaac Newton Gravity/Motion laws
Leibniz Developed calculus
Leeuwenhoek Microscope/Discovered Bacteria
Robert Hooke Identified cells in living matter
Robert Boyle Founded modern chemistry
Joseph Priestley Discovered oxygen
Lavoisier Law of conservation of matter/Named oxygen

Normal people

Question Answer
What social media apps do you want Facebook Snapchat Musically Pinterest Instagram Spotify
What kind of phone do you want Not a bug phone or a flip phone maybe a Samsung
Who would be on your contacts All of my friends amd maybe one boy definitely mom &dad
Whats your favorite station on Pandora Selena Quintanilla Perez radio

chapter 46 key terms

Term Definition
aerobic requiring oxygen for the maintenance of life
anti tubercular drugs drugs used to treat infections cause by Mycobacterium bacterial species
bacillus a rod shaped bacterium
granulomas small nodular aggregations of inflammatory cells (macrophages, lymphocytes) has delimited boundaries
interferon gamma release assays (IGRA's) surrogate markers of mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. indicate a cellular immune response to M tuberculosis
Isoniazid primary and most commonly prescribed anti tubercular drug
multidrug resistant tuberculoses (MDR-TB) tuberculosis that demonstrates resistance to two or more drugs
slow acetylator an individual with genetic defect that cases a deficiency in the enzyme needed to metabolize isoniazid the most widely used tubuerculosis drug
tubercle bacillus the characteristic lesion of tuberculosis a small round grey translucent granulomatous lesion. usually with caseated (cheesy) consistency in its interio
tubercle bacilli another common name for rod shaped tuberculosis bacteria; essentially synonymous with mycobacterium tuberculosis
tuberculosis (TB) any infectious disease caused by species of mycobacterium usually mycobacterium tuberculosis
TB is commonly characterized by granulomas in the lungs- nodular inflammatory cells that are walled of with clear boundaries and have a centre that is cheesy or caseated
MTB (mycobacterium tuberculoses) is an aerobic bacillus- a long and slender, rod shaped microorganism
MTB has a need for highly oxygenated blood – explains why it most commonly effects the lungs
early manifestation of MTB nonspecific and include a productive cough that lasts longer than 2 weeks and may contain blood, weight loss, chest pain, weakness, fatigue, loss of apetite
other common infection sites of MTB growing ends of bones and the brain (cerebral cortex)
tubercle bacilli (synonym for MTB) transmitted from humans, cows, or birds.
tubercle bacilli are conveyed in droplets expelled by infected people or animals during coughing or sneezing and are then inhaled by the new host
MTB is a slow growing organisms -makes it more difficult to treat
many antibiotics used to treat TB work by inhibiting growth
slow growing microorganisms are harder to kill because their cells are not as metabolically active as those of faster growing microorganisms
first infectious episode is considered the primary TB infection
patents with dormant bacteria may test positive for exposure, but oar not necessarily infectious
groups that are susceptible to TB homelessness, undernourishes or malnourishes, people infected with HIV, misuse drugs, patients with cancer and those takin immunosupresing drugs
anti tubercular drugs fall into two categoris primary and secondary
two effective drugs must be administered at all times
therapy is given in two phases the initial intensive and continuation
initial therapy consists of drugs used in combination to achieve rapid destruction of the TB bacilli and rapid improvement in the patients clinical condition
the first phase of therapy results in reduced morbidity, mortality, and disease transmission – lasts about two months – drugs administered 5x/week – three drugs used at this time
patients in canada with active TB are treated with isoniazid, rifampin, ppurazinamide and ethambutol – for initial 2 months
second continuation phase consists of use of two drugs, drugs may be given daily, or intermittently
Directly observed treatment (DOT) is recommended for patients who have risk factors for non adherence or who are members of population groups with high rates of treatment failure
Isoniazid primary anti tubercular drug and is the most widely used – can be administered either as the sole drug in prophylaxis of TB or in combination
step 1 for diagnosis of tuberculosis perform tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma release assay – Skin test assessed for size of induration, positive value, and risk of disease
step 2 diagnosis of tuberculosis if skin test is positive perform chest x-ray
step 3 diagnosis of tuberculosis if chest x ray shows signs of TB then perform culture of sputum or stomach secretions
first line antitubercular drugs ethambutol hydrochloride (EMB) – isoniazid (INH) – purazinamide (PZA) – rifampin (RMP)
second line antitubercular drugs samikacin sulphate – levofloxacin hemihydrate – mozifloxacin hydrochloride
combination of isoniazid and ethambutol has been used to treat pregnant women with clinically apparent TB without teratogenic complications
Rifamipin is often safe during pregnancy, it is likely to be chose to treat advanced TB
anti tubercular drugs are not as effective against other species of mycobacterium as they are against MTB
contraindications to the use of various antitubercular drugs include severe drug allergy and motor kidney and liver dysfunction
patients are sometimes given a drug to which they have some degree of allergy along with supportive care that enables them to atlas tolerate the medication
isoniazid ADE pyridoxine deficiency and liver toxicity – supplement are often given concurrently
isoniazid interacts with antacids, rifampin, phenytoin, carbamezepine
streptomycin interacts with nephrotoxic and neurotoxic drugs, oral anticoagylants
rifampin interacts with -blockers, benzodiazepines, cyclosporine, oral anticoagulants, oral antihyperglycemics, oral contraceptives, phytoin, quinidine sulphate, sirolimus, thophylline
advise patients taking rifampin to immediately report fever, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, jaundice, or unusual bleeding.
rifampin causes oral contraceptives to become unefective
patients taking rifampin may experience red-orange-brown discolouration of the skin, sweat, tears, urine, faces, sputum, saliva and tongue
vitamin B6 is needed to combat peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid

SLALG 8th GR unit 1 SL Algebra 8th Grade Unite 1

Question Answer
absolute value the distance of a number from zero on a number line
additive inverse the property that states that the sum of two inverse (opposite) numbers equals zero : a + (-1) = 0
base The number that is going to be raised to a power.
Closure Property a set of numbes is closed under an operation when that operation is performed on any two numbers from that set and the result is always a number in that set. For all real numbers a and b a + b and ab are unique real numbers pg 5
counterexample a case for which a statement is not true pg. 5
exponent the number that indicates how many times the base is used as a factor pg 10
irrational numbers a number that cannot be expressed in the form a/b where a and b are intergers and b ? 0, a nonrepeating and nonterminating decimal
multiplicative identity The "Multiplicative Identity" is 1, because multiplying a number by 1 leaves it unchanged – a ? 1 = 1 ? a = a
multiplicative inverses the reciprocal of a number. If a ? 0 than 1/a is the multiplicative inverse or reciprocal of a pg 9 ex Example: 8 ? (1/8) = 1
nonperfect square a number that is not the square of a natural number pg 3
perfect square the square of a natural number (1,2,3,4,…18,19 etc) pg 2
radical an equation that contains a variable within a radicand pg 234 / An expression that has a square root, cube root, etc.
radicand the expression under a radical sign pg 2
rational numbers a number that can be written in fraction form a/b, where a and b are intergers and b ? 0 pg 2 A number that can be made by dividing two integers. (An integer is a number with no fractional part.)
real numbers the set of rational numbers and the set of irrational numbers together form the set of real numbers pg 4
reciprocal the multiplicative inverse of a number pg 9 / To get the reciprocal of a number, we divide 1 by the number. Example: the reciprocal of 2 is ? (a half)
scientific notation a way of writing numbers as the prodcut of a number that is at least 1 but less than 10 and a power of 10 pg 14
integer A number with no fractional part
whole numbers The numbers {0, 1, 2, 3, …} etc. There is no fractional or decimal part. And no negatives. There is no fractional or decimal part. And no negatives. INCLUDES ZERO
natural numbers The whole numbers from 1 upwards: 1, 2, 3, and so on …Or from 0 upwards in some fields of mathematics: 0, 1, 2, 3 and so on …No negative numbers and no fractions. DOES NOT INCLUDE ZERO
Commutative Property a + b = b + a OR a b = b a
Associative Property a + b + c = (a + b) + c = a + (b + c)
Identity Property a + 0 = a and 0 + a = a / a * 1 = a
Inverse Property for every real number a there is a unique real number -a so a + -a = 0 / for every nonzero real number a, there is a unique real number 1/a so a * 1/a = 1
Distributive Property a * (b + c) = a * b + a * c AND (b + c) * a = b * a + c * a
additive inverse is what we add to a number to get zero. Example: The additive inverse of ?5 is +5, because ?5 + 5 = 0.
multiplicative inverse is what we multiply a number by to get 1. Example: The multiplicative inverse of 5 is 1/5 , because 5 ? 1/5 = 1

Buisness Law Chapter 3

Term Definition
Ethics Moral principles and values applied to social behavior
Business Ethics What constitutes right or wrong behavior and the application of moral principles ion a business context.
Triple Bottom Line Focuses on a corporation's profits, its impact on people, and its impact on the planet.
Moral Minimum The minimum degree of ethical behavior expected of a business firm, which is usually defined as compliance with the law.
Ethical Reasoning A reasoning process in which an individual links his or her moral convictions or ethical standards to the particular situation at hand.
Duty-Based Ethics An ethical philosophy rooted in the idea that every person has certain duties to others, including both humans and the planet. Those duties may be derived from religious principles or from other philosophical reasoning.
Outcome-Based Ethics An ethical philosophy that focuses on the impacts of a decision on society or on key stakeholders.
Principle of Rights The belief that human beings have certain fundamental rights, Whether an action or decision is ethical depends on how it affects the rights of various groups, such as owners, employees, consumers, suppliers, the community, and society.
Categorical Imperative An ethical guideline developed by Immanuel Kant under which an action is evaluated in terms of what would happen if everybody else in the same situation, or category, acted the same way.
Utilitarianism An approach to ethical reasoning in which an action is evaluated in terms of its consequences for those whom it will affect, A "good" action is one that results in the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
Cost-Benefit Analysis A decision-making technique that involves weighing the costs of a given action against the benefits of that nation.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) The idea that corporations can and should act ethically and be accountable to society for their actions.
Stakeholders Groups, other than the company's shareholders, that are affected by corporate decision. Stakeholders include employees, customers, creditors, suppliers, and the community in which the corporation operates.